22 June 2026

Quiz — 22 June 2026

Every prelims question from this edition. Tap an option to check it; what you answer is remembered on this device.

Questions

1. Under the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022, what is the maximum duration for which identification records, including DNA profiles, can be retained?

   1. A 25 years
   2. B 100 years
   3. C 75 years
   4. D 50 years

2. Which of the following bodies is responsible for operating the central database for DNA records collected under the CrPI Act?

   1. A Forensic Science Laboratory (FSL)
   2. B Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
   3. C National Investigation Agency (NIA)
   4. D National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB)

3. According to the India Skills Report 2025, what is the approximate percentage of Indian graduates considered employable?

   1. A 45.2%
   2. B 54.8%
   3. C 51.0%
   4. D 60.5%

4. What is the primary process used to produce biochar from agricultural waste?

   1. A Incineration at high temperatures
   2. B Pyrolysis in low-oxygen conditions
   3. C Aerobic composting
   4. D Anaerobic digestion

5. According to the VM0042 methodology, what is the approximate carbon dioxide-equivalent credit generated per tonne of certified biochar?

   1. A 10.0-12.0 tonnes
   2. B 2.0-2.8 tonnes
   3. C 0.5-1.0 tonnes
   4. D 5.0-6.0 tonnes

6. Which Article of the Indian Constitution was cited by the Supreme Court to argue that material resources, such as land for roadways, should be distributed to sub-serve the common good?

   1. A Article 14
   2. B Article 21A
   3. C Article 21
   4. D Article 39(b)

7. Which of the following legal doctrines was cited by the Supreme Court in Vinay Tyagi v. Irshad Ali (2013) to support the requirement of seeking court leave for further investigation?

   1. A Doctrine of Pith and Substance
   2. B Doctrine of Contemporanea Expositio
   3. C Doctrine of Severability
   4. D Doctrine of Harmonious Construction

8. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), when does the statute explicitly mandate the permission of the court for further investigation?

   1. A At the time of police remand
   2. B Before filing the initial FIR
   3. C Before the arrest of the accused
   4. D If the trial has already begun

9. Which of the following components are typically included in the 'committed expenditure' of a state government?

   1. A Social welfare schemes, education grants, and administrative overheads
   2. B Public debt repayment, infrastructure development, and defense
   3. C Capital expenditure, subsidies, and grants-in-aid
   4. D Salaries, pensions, and interest payments

10. Which of the following best describes the term 'HFSS' in the context of food regulation?

    1. A Highly Fortified and Synthetic Substances
    2. B Healthy Food and Supplement Standards
    3. C High in Fat, Sugar, and Sodium
    4. D High in Fiber, Starch, and Sugar

11. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis of adult suffrage?

    1. A Article 324
    2. B Article 325
    3. C Article 326
    4. D Article 327

12. Which of the following bodies originally imposed the ban on 'rat-hole' coal mining in Meghalaya in 2014?

    1. A Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
    2. B National Green Tribunal
    3. C Meghalaya State Pollution Control Board
    4. D Supreme Court of India

13. What percentage of global GDP is collectively accounted for by India and the European Union?

    1. A 15%
    2. B 33%
    3. C 20%
    4. D 25%

14. Under the proposed India-EU Free Trade Agreement, what percentage of Indian shipments is expected to enjoy duty-free access to the EU bloc?

    1. A 85%
    2. B 97%
    3. C 90%
    4. D 93%

15. The National Testing Agency (NTA) was established under which of the following legal frameworks?

    1. A The Companies Act, 2013
    2. B Article 324 of the Constitution
    3. C The Societies Registration Act, 1860
    4. D An Act of Parliament

16. What is the maximum penalty prescribed under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, for individuals involved in organised paper leak networks?

    1. A 7 years imprisonment and 75 lakh fine
    2. B 10 years imprisonment and 1 crore fine
    3. C 5 years imprisonment and 50 lakh fine
    4. D Life imprisonment and unlimited fine

17. Which of the following is an objective of the Sagarmala Project?

    1. A To increase the number of foreign-flagged vessels in Indian ports
    2. B To reduce logistics costs and accelerate industrial growth in coastal regions
    3. C To exclusively focus on the development of inland waterways in landlocked states
    4. D To privatize all major ports under the control of foreign shipping companies

18. Under which U.S. legislation was the investigation into the import of goods produced using forced labour launched?

    1. A Trade Expansion Act of 1962
    2. B Trade Act of 1974
    3. C Omnibus Trade and Competitiveness Act of 1988
    4. D Smoot-Hawley Tariff Act

19. According to the CAG 2025 report, what was the status of sewerage connections provided to households in Kerala under the AMRUT Mission?

    1. A 70%
    2. B 6%
    3. C 11.25%
    4. D 0.13%

20. Which of the following is identified as a major factor contributing to the contamination of domestic wells in Kerala?

    1. A Industrial chemical runoff
    2. B Proximity of poorly designed septic tanks to wells
    3. C Excessive use of chemical fertilizers in agriculture
    4. D Lack of rainfall leading to stagnant water

21. Which regulatory body in India is responsible for the licensing and regulation of clinical psychologists?

    1. A Medical Council of India
    2. B National Medical Commission
    3. C Rehabilitation Council of India
    4. D University Grants Commission

22. What is the primary eligibility criterion regarding family income for the AICTE Pragati Scholarship for girls?

    1. A Less than ₹500,000 per annum
    2. B Less than ₹1,000,000 per annum
    3. C Less than ₹600,000 per annum
    4. D Less than ₹800,000 per annum

23. Under the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, what is the minimum proportion of members of a legislative party required to merge with another party to be exempt from disqualification?

    1. A Two-thirds
    2. B One-third
    3. C One-half
    4. D Three-fourths

24. Under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, which body is primarily responsible for the oversight of human rights violations in detention facilities?

    1. A State Legal Services Authority
    2. B National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
    3. C National Human Rights Commission
    4. D Central Bureau of Investigation

25. Which of the following bodies is responsible for the inspection of the Mullaperiyar dam as mentioned in the context of the recent committee reconstitution?

    1. A Inter-State River Water Disputes Tribunal
    2. B Central Water Commission
    3. C Comprehensive Dam Safety Evaluation Committee
    4. D National Disaster Management Authority

26. In the context of the recent Madras High Court suo motu PIL, which of the following departments are designated as respondents?

    1. A Animal Husbandry, Health, and Municipal Administration
    2. B Environment, Forest, and Climate Change
    3. C Animal Welfare Board, Municipal Corporation, and Police
    4. D Urban Development, Home Affairs, and Health

27. According to the U.S. Surgeon General’s Advisory, what is the threshold of daily social media usage after which adolescents are twice as likely to show symptoms of depression and anxiety?

    1. A One hour
    2. B Two hours
    3. C Three hours
    4. D Four hours

28. What does the '3-2-1 rule' in the context of data management refer to?

    1. A Three layers of encryption, two-factor authentication, and one cloud backup.
    2. B Three security audits, two firewall layers, and one offline server.
    3. C Three-day recovery window, two backup locations, and one primary database.
    4. D Three copies of data, two different media types, and one off-site copy.

29. Which of the following central forces has been tasked with providing armed security to high-security prisons in Jammu & Kashmir?

    1. A Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)
    2. B Border Security Force (BSF)
    3. C Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
    4. D Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)

30. Which of the following best describes the primary objective of constituting a Special Investigation Team (SIT) in cases of alleged custodial death?

    1. A To expedite the promotion of the involved police officers
    2. B To ensure an impartial and transparent investigation
    3. C To bypass the jurisdiction of the local judiciary
    4. D To provide financial compensation to the victim's family

31. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002, was enacted primarily to:

    1. A Monitor the financial transactions of political entities during election cycles.
    2. B Prevent money laundering and provide for confiscation of property derived from money laundering.
    3. C Oversee the corporate governance standards of public sector undertakings.
    4. D Regulate the functioning of private limited companies in the mining sector.

32. Under the provisions of the Kerala Promotion of Tree Growth in Non-Forest Areas Act 2005, a transport pass for felled trees is legally permissible only when:

    1. A The trees are located on land acquired for state highway projects.
    2. B The trees are sold to a private wood industry firm at a discounted rate.
    3. C The trees are located on assigned land vested with the State government.
    4. D The trees are legally felled by the owner of the holding on which they are located.

33. In the context of electoral roll revision in India, which of the following authorities is typically designated as the 'competent authority' for issuing a Permanent Residence Certificate?

    1. A Tahsildar
    2. B District Collector
    3. C Panchayat Development Officer
    4. D Village Administrative Officer

34. Under the Management and Disposal of Housing Estate Regulations, 1968, how must a housing scheme developed by the DDA be managed?

    1. A By separate RWAs for each income category
    2. B By private facility management companies only
    3. C By a single composite housing society for the entire area
    4. D By the local municipal corporation exclusively

35. The 'PM SVANidhi' scheme, often facilitated through government outreach camps, is primarily aimed at providing:

    1. A Affordable housing for urban poor
    2. B Subsidized solar power installations for households
    3. C Digital health records for senior citizens
    4. D Collateral-free working capital loans to street vendors

36. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) was invoked against the factory management following the ammonia gas leak incident?

    1. A Section 125
    2. B Section 105
    3. C Section 110
    4. D Section 100

37. Which of the following nations are acting as mediators in the recent U.S.-Iran diplomatic talks held in Switzerland?

    1. A United Arab Emirates and Kuwait
    2. B Saudi Arabia and Turkey
    3. C Switzerland and Oman
    4. D Pakistan and Qatar

38. Which of the following best describes the core objective of 'environmental storytelling' in the context of modern conservation?

    1. A To focus exclusively on the documentation of endangered species
    2. B To bridge the gap between scientific findings, policy, and public awareness
    3. C To prioritize entertainment value over ecological accuracy
    4. D To replace scientific research with narrative-based evidence

39. How does alcohol consumption physiologically exacerbate the risks associated with extreme heat exposure?

    1. A It acts as a diuretic and suppresses vasopressin, increasing dehydration risk.
    2. B It increases the body's awareness of early warning signs like dizziness.
    3. C It constricts blood vessels in the skin, preventing heat dissipation.
    4. D It increases the production of vasopressin, leading to water retention.

40. According to the United Nations, approximately how many people are currently displaced within Ukraine due to the ongoing war?

    1. A 15 million
    2. B 8 million
    3. C 10 million
    4. D 5 million

41. In the context of health insurance, what is the primary purpose of a 'top-up' policy?

    1. A To replace the need for any form of medical savings or emergency funds.
    2. B To provide coverage for catastrophic claims exceeding a predetermined threshold.
    3. C To guarantee cashless treatment without any pre-authorisation requirements.
    4. D To provide coverage for all outpatient diagnostic expenses.

42. Project Nimbus, a significant cloud computing contract, involves which of the following technology corporations?

    1. A Google and Microsoft
    2. B Google and Amazon
    3. C Amazon and Microsoft
    4. D Google, Amazon, and Microsoft

43. What percentage of the United Kingdom's imports were accounted for by the European Union even after the Brexit transition?

    1. A 30%
    2. B 50%
    3. C 41%
    4. D 60%

44. Which of the following best describes the concept of 'metacognition' in the context of student learning?

    1. A The reliance on digital resources over traditional classroom lectures.
    2. B The ability to memorize large volumes of textbook information.
    3. C The practice of competing with peers to achieve higher academic grades.
    4. D The process of reflecting on one's own learning style and how to learn effectively.

45. Howard Gardner’s theory, as referenced in the context of modern pedagogy, primarily emphasizes:

    1. A The importance of standardized testing for all students.
    2. B The superiority of formal presentations over informal communication.
    3. C The existence of multiple intelligences requiring diverse teaching approaches.
    4. D The necessity of teacher-centric classroom architecture.

46. In the context of Vedic literature, what is the primary distinction between Karma Kanda and Jnana Kanda?

    1. A Karma Kanda deals with spiritual knowledge, while Jnana Kanda deals with rituals.
    2. B Karma Kanda is for the current yuga, while Jnana Kanda is for ancient times.
    3. C Karma Kanda refers to temple worship, while Jnana Kanda refers to chanting.
    4. D Karma Kanda focuses on rituals and duties, while Jnana Kanda focuses on spiritual knowledge.

47. Under the Constitution of India, which article mandates the presentation of the Annual Financial Statement before the State Legislature?

    1. A Article 280
    2. B Article 202
    3. C Article 112
    4. D Article 266

48. In the context of human-wildlife conflict in India, which of the following factors is most commonly cited as a primary driver for animals entering agricultural fields?

    1. A Strict enforcement of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
    2. B Increased industrialization in urban centers
    3. C Fragmentation of natural habitats and loss of wildlife corridors
    4. D Decrease in the population of apex predators

49. The Dr. Radhakrishnan Government Medical College is located in which Indian state?

    1. A Himachal Pradesh
    2. B Uttarakhand
    3. C Arunachal Pradesh
    4. D Sikkim

50. Under which legislation are criminal cases currently being registered in India following the recent legal reforms?

    1. A Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
    2. B Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
    3. C Code of Criminal Procedure
    4. D Indian Penal Code

51. Which international body officially declared June 21 as the International Day of Yoga?

    1. A International Yoga Federation
    2. B UNESCO
    3. C United Nations
    4. D World Health Organization

52. What is the theme for the International Day of Yoga 2024?

    1. A Yoga for Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam
    2. B Yoga for Humanity
    3. C Yoga for Climate Action
    4. D Yoga for healthy ageing