22 July 2026

Quiz — 22 July 2026

Every prelims question from this edition. Tap an option to check it; what you answer is remembered on this device.

Questions

1. What is the current replacement level fertility rate as per the UNFPA report?

   1. A 2.0
   2. B 2.1
   3. C 2.5
   4. D 1.8

2. Which of the following is identified as a major barrier to family formation among Indian youth in the UNFPA survey?

   1. A Government policies restricting family size
   2. B Lack of interest in marriage
   3. C Economic concerns like job security and housing
   4. D Cultural shift away from family life

3. Which of the following provisions is included in the Madhya Pradesh Uniform Civil Code 2026 Bill as mentioned in the recent legislative session?

   1. A Mandatory registration of live-in relationships
   2. B Abolition of all tribal customary laws
   3. C Compulsory religious education in state schools
   4. D Uniform taxation for agricultural land

4. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU)?

   1. A Azerbaijan
   2. B Armenia
   3. C Kazakhstan
   4. D Kyrgyzstan

5. The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) includes which of the following nations?

   1. A Saudi Arabia, UAE, Qatar, Kuwait, Bahrain, and Oman
   2. B Saudi Arabia, UAE, Iran, Kuwait, Bahrain, and Oman
   3. C Saudi Arabia, UAE, Qatar, Iraq, Bahrain, and Oman
   4. D Saudi Arabia, UAE, Qatar, Kuwait, Yemen, and Oman

6. Under the Constitution of India, the resignation of which of the following functionaries is NOT subject to acceptance by an external authority?

   1. A Member of a State Legislative Council
   2. B Member of Parliament
   3. C Judge of a High Court
   4. D Member of a State Legislative Assembly

7. Which Supreme Court judgment established that the resignation of a High Court or Supreme Court judge is effective ex proprio vigore?

   1. A Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala
   2. B Minerva Mills vs Union of India
   3. C Union of India vs Gopal Chandra Misra
   4. D S.P. Gupta vs Union of India

8. Which of the following sectors was newly added to the Index of Core Industries (ICI) in the updated series?

   1. A Iron Ore
   2. B Natural Gas
   3. C Fertilizers
   4. D Refinery Products

9. What is the primary reason for excluding middling and washed coal from the updated ICI series?

   1. A To reduce the overall weight of the coal sector
   2. B To eliminate double counting of raw coal
   3. C To align with international coal trading standards
   4. D To account for the shift toward renewable energy

10. Which of the following best describes the scope of the India-U.K. Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA)?

    1. A A regional agreement limited to the textile and leather sectors only.
    2. B A comprehensive framework covering trade, technology, climate, innovation, and professional mobility.
    3. C A limited agreement focusing exclusively on agricultural tariff reductions.
    4. D A security-focused pact primarily aimed at military cooperation.

11. What is the stated target for bilateral trade between India and the U.K. by the year 2030 under the new institutional framework?

    1. A Over $200 billion
    2. B Over $75 billion
    3. C Over $50 billion
    4. D Over $100 billion

12. Which of the following statements best reflects the legal position regarding the relationship between electoral rolls and citizenship in India?

    1. A Enrolment in the electoral roll is conclusive proof of Indian citizenship.
    2. B The Election Commission of India has the sole authority to determine citizenship status through the SIR process.
    3. C All persons enrolled as voters must be citizens, but not all citizens are necessarily enrolled as voters.
    4. D All citizens are mandatorily required to be enrolled in the electoral roll to receive state welfare.

13. According to the Bain-Dasra India Philanthropy Report 2026, which of the following best describes the current trend of domestic private philanthropy in India?

    1. A It is primarily driven by government grants rather than private individuals.
    2. B It is currently lower than foreign philanthropic inflows.
    3. C It has remained stagnant over the last decade.
    4. D It exceeds ₹1.18 lakh crore annually, surpassing foreign inflows by over five times.

14. Which of the following measures has been suggested to incentivize domestic philanthropy in India?

    1. A Allowing donations of appreciated listed shares to eligible charities.
    2. B Abolishing the FCRA registration requirement for all voluntary organisations.
    3. C Mandating 100% of CSR funds to be directed to foreign-funded NGOs.
    4. D Restricting individual donations to only cash-based transactions.

15. Under the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, a merger of a political party is deemed valid only if:

    1. A The members joining the new party resign from their seats and seek re-election.
    2. B The merger takes place at the level of the original political party, not just the legislative party.
    3. C At least one-third of the members of the legislative party agree to the merger.
    4. D The Speaker of the House grants unilateral approval without consulting the Election Commission.

16. The global electrification agenda, as discussed in international climate forums, aims to achieve what percentage of total energy consumption from electricity by 2035?

    1. A 25%
    2. B 35%
    3. C 30%
    4. D 40%

17. Under the Indian Constitution, which of the following best describes the primary difference between a State and a Union Territory regarding legislative powers?

    1. A States cannot pass resolutions regarding their own status, while Union Territories can.
    2. B States have inherent constitutional powers, whereas Union Territories are administered by the President through an appointed administrator.
    3. C Union Territories have more autonomy in law-making than States.
    4. D There is no functional difference in the distribution of powers between the Centre and the two entities.

18. Which of the following best describes the Supreme Court's recent ruling regarding the Kerala Waqf Board?

    1. A It removed the requirement for the Board to function under the day-to-day supervision of a government official.
    2. B It mandated that all policy decisions must be approved by the state government.
    3. C It declared the UMEED Act, 2025, unconstitutional in its entirety.
    4. D It dissolved the Board for failing to comply with the UMEED Act, 2025.

19. Which of the following best describes the 'outbound portability' feature of the Mukhyamantri Ayushman Arogya (MAA) Yojana?

    1. A It allows patients to receive free medical treatment in empanelled hospitals outside their home state.
    2. B It facilitates the movement of medical staff from rural to urban health centers.
    3. C It enables the transfer of medical records between government and private hospitals within the state.
    4. D It provides financial assistance to patients traveling abroad for specialized medical procedures.

20. The issuance of national identity cards to citizens is governed by which of the following provisions?

    1. A The Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019
    2. B The Foreigners Act, 1946
    3. C Article 371 of the Constitution
    4. D Section 14A of the Citizenship Act, 1955

21. When was the final updated National Register of Citizens (NRC) for Assam published?

    1. A August 31, 2019
    2. B January 26, 2020
    3. C December 12, 2019
    4. D August 15, 1947

22. The National Road Safety Board was constituted under which of the following legislative provisions?

    1. A Road Safety and Traffic Management Act, 2010
    2. B Article 215 of the Constitution
    3. C Section 215B of the Motor Vehicles Act
    4. D National Highways Authority of India Act, 1988

23. In the event of a split verdict by a Division Bench of a High Court, what is the standard procedure for resolving the legal deadlock?

    1. A The case is automatically dismissed.
    2. B The opinion of the senior-most judge prevails.
    3. C The matter is referred to the Supreme Court of India.
    4. D The matter is referred to the Chief Justice for placement before a third judge.

24. Which of the following statements regarding the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2023-24 is correct?

    1. A Female enrolment in undergraduate courses saw a decline of 2.2%.
    2. B Undergraduate enrolment declined for the first time since the survey began in 2011.
    3. C Total higher education enrolment saw a record growth of 10% in 2023-24.
    4. D Undergraduate enrolments have shown a consistent increase since 2011.

25. The white-bellied heron (Ardea insignis) is currently protected under which schedule of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972?

    1. A Schedule IV
    2. B Schedule I
    3. C Schedule II
    4. D Schedule III

26. Which of the following best describes the habitat requirements of the white-bellied heron?

    1. A Coastal mangroves and estuarine environments
    2. B High-altitude alpine meadows and grasslands
    3. C Fast-flowing rivers lined with old-growth riparian forests
    4. D Arid scrublands and inland wetlands

27. Which of the following principles regarding the use of force by state authorities during protests was emphasized in the Ramlila Maidan case?

    1. A Force is strictly prohibited under all circumstances
    2. B Force must be necessary and proportionate to the situation
    3. C Force is permitted only after a formal declaration of emergency
    4. D Force must be absolute and decisive to maintain order

28. Which of the following best describes the practice of 'judicial recusal' in the context of the Indian Supreme Court?

    1. A A mandatory process where a judge must resign upon reaching the age of retirement.
    2. B A voluntary withdrawal of a judge from a case to avoid potential conflicts of interest or bias.
    3. C A legislative requirement for judges to disclose their personal assets before hearing criminal appeals.
    4. D A disciplinary action taken by the Chief Justice of India against a sitting judge.

29. Under which legislation does the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change grant approval for the diversion of forest land for non-forestry purposes?

    1. A The Forest Rights Act, 2006
    2. B The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
    3. C The Van (Sanrakshan evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam, 1980
    4. D The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

30. In the context of Indian judicial proceedings, what does the term 'de novo' trial imply?

    1. A A trial conducted by a higher court to review sentencing only
    2. B A summary trial conducted without the presence of legal counsel
    3. C A trial that is conducted afresh as if the previous proceedings never occurred
    4. D A process where the appellate court modifies the sentence without re-examining evidence

31. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012?

    1. A It is a gender-neutral legislation covering all children under the age of 18.
    2. B It is applicable only to female children.
    3. C It excludes cases of aggravated sexual assault from its purview.
    4. D It mandates that all trials must be conducted by the Supreme Court.

32. Which of the following institutions is NOT mentioned as a partner in the heat stress impact study in South India?

    1. A M.S. Swaminathan Research Foundation (MSSRF)
    2. B Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
    3. C India Meteorological Department (IMD)
    4. D Indian Institute of Science (IISc)

33. Under the current legal framework in India, when can a candidate file an election petition to challenge the rejection of a nomination paper for a Rajya Sabha seat?

    1. A By appealing directly to the President of India
    2. B By filing a writ petition in the Supreme Court during the polling process
    3. C Immediately upon the rejection of the nomination by the Returning Officer
    4. D Only after the election process has concluded

34. Which of the following statements regarding the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) is correct?

    1. A The UAPA is exclusively applicable to foreign nationals involved in terror activities.
    2. B Bail under UAPA is granted automatically if the investigation is not completed within 30 days.
    3. C The NIA is the primary investigative agency empowered to probe cases under the UAPA.
    4. D The Act was originally enacted in 2020 to address modern digital threats.

35. According to the recent UN report, which continent currently has the largest number of people facing hunger?

    1. A Asia
    2. B South America
    3. C Africa
    4. D Europe

36. Which of the following countries has recently engaged in diplomatic mediation efforts between Iran and the United States according to reports?

    1. A Turkey
    2. B Pakistan
    3. C Saudi Arabia
    4. D Qatar

37. The Strait of Hormuz, recently the site of a tanker attack, is a critical maritime chokepoint connecting which two bodies of water?

    1. A The Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea
    2. B The Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden
    3. C The Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman
    4. D The Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean

38. Which of the following agreements is mentioned as having entered into force in the context of India-U.K. relations?

    1. A India-U.K. Free Trade Agreement (FTA)
    2. B Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA)
    3. C Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA)
    4. D Strategic Trade and Technology Partnership (STTP)

39. What is the immediate impact of a significant rise in international crude oil prices on Indian government bond yields?

    1. A Bond yields increase due to inflation and fiscal concerns
    2. B Bond yields remain unaffected due to RBI intervention
    3. C Bond yields decrease as the import bill shrinks
    4. D Bond yields decrease as investors seek safety

40. The Strait of Hormuz, a critical maritime chokepoint for global energy supplies, is located between which two countries?

    1. A Iran and Saudi Arabia
    2. B Iraq and Kuwait
    3. C Iran and Oman
    4. D United Arab Emirates and Qatar

41. Which state in India has the highest percentage of Scheduled Caste population relative to its total population?

    1. A Punjab
    2. B West Bengal
    3. C Uttar Pradesh
    4. D Bihar

42. Which of the following rivers were reported to be flowing above the danger level in Assam according to the recent ASDMA update?

    1. A Buridihing, Dikhou, Disang, and Pagladiya
    2. B Brahmaputra, Buridihing, Dikhou, Disang, and Dhansiri
    3. C Brahmaputra, Barak, Kopili, and Dhansiri
    4. D Brahmaputra, Manas, Subansiri, and Jia Bharali

43. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002, is primarily enforced in India by which of the following agencies?

    1. A Enforcement Directorate (ED)
    2. B Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
    3. C Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU-IND)
    4. D Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)

44. The 'Desh Bachao Morcha' recently organized protests primarily to express concerns regarding which of the following?

    1. A The privatization of state-owned dairy cooperatives
    2. B The proposed India-U.S. trade deal
    3. C The implementation of the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for all crops
    4. D The reduction in fertilizer subsidies

45. The term 'Lal Dora', historically significant in the context of land administration in India, refers to:

    1. A A boundary line between two princely states established during the British Raj.
    2. B A buffer zone created for forest conservation by the colonial administration.
    3. C A red line drawn around rural settlements to demarcate habitation zones from agricultural land.
    4. D A restricted zone where all forms of construction were strictly prohibited by law.

46. In the mythological narrative of the conflict between Vaali and Sugreeva, what strategic advice does Tara provide to Vaali regarding the challenge from Sugreeva?

    1. A To ignore the challenge as it is beneath his status as king.
    2. B To exile Sugreeva permanently to the Rishyamukha mountains.
    3. C To seek reconciliation and appoint Sugreeva as his successor due to the presence of external support.
    4. D To immediately engage in a final battle to prove his strength.

47. Beta Pictoris b, recently in the news, is best described as:

    1. A An asteroid belt located in the Milky Way
    2. B A rocky terrestrial planet in the habitable zone
    3. C A cold gas giant planet
    4. D A dwarf star orbiting a binary system

48. In which constellation is the star Beta Pictoris located?

    1. A Orion
    2. B Pictor
    3. C Centaurus
    4. D Ursa Major

49. Which country recently became the first in Europe to pass legislation banning social media access for children under the age of 15?

    1. A Germany
    2. B Italy
    3. C France
    4. D Spain

50. Which of the following best describes the recent licensing arrangement between Lupin and Kaveri Therapeutics?

    1. A Kaveri Therapeutics licensed its proprietary oncology technology to Lupin for $1.6 million.
    2. B Lupin licensed two oncology programmes to Kaveri in exchange for an 82.2% equity stake.
    3. C Lupin acquired Kaveri Therapeutics as a wholly-owned subsidiary.
    4. D Lupin sold its entire oncology division to Kaveri Therapeutics for $1.6 million.

51. With reference to the recent listing of SBI Funds Management Ltd, what was the premium over the offer price at which the stock debuted?

    1. A 8%
    2. B 6%
    3. C 5%
    4. D 4%

52. With reference to the recent financial performance of Bajaj Auto for Q1 2026, which of the following statements is correct?

    1. A Export volumes remained below 5 lakh units.
    2. B Standalone net profit growth was higher than consolidated net profit growth.
    3. C Consolidated net profit grew by 29% YoY.
    4. D Consolidated revenue from operations grew by 65% YoY.

53. Which of the following factors is primarily cited by automobile manufacturers for the recent trend of periodic price hikes in India?

    1. A Continuous increase in input costs
    2. B Decrease in consumer demand
    3. C Government-mandated luxury taxes
    4. D Fluctuations in foreign exchange reserves

54. Which of the following factors was primarily cited as the cause for the increase in procurement costs for Adani Total Gas in the June-ended quarter of FY27?

    1. A Domestic regulatory changes in gas pricing
    2. B Reduction in government subsidies for LNG imports
    3. C Significant decline in CNG sales volume
    4. D Elevated Brent-linked gas costs due to West Asia conflict

55. Under the current constitutional and legal framework in India, when is a byelection typically held for a vacant legislative seat?

    1. A At the discretion of the state government in consultation with the Governor.
    2. B Immediately upon the resignation or death of the incumbent.
    3. C If the general election for that seat is due more than six months after the vacancy occurs.
    4. D Only if the remaining term of the house is more than one year.

56. Under the Indian legal framework, which of the following is a primary consideration for the judiciary when deciding on the cancellation of bail?

    1. A The personal background of the presiding judge
    2. B The duration of the investigation by the police
    3. C The political affiliation of the accused
    4. D The potential for tampering with evidence or influencing witnesses

57. The Strait of Hormuz, a critical maritime chokepoint, connects which two major bodies of water?

    1. A The Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea
    2. B The Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden
    3. C The Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman
    4. D The Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal

58. Which Act provides the legal framework for the Appellate Tribunal that adjudicates appeals against orders passed by the Enforcement Directorate under FEMA?

    1. A Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA)
    2. B Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act (COFEPOSA)
    3. C Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA)
    4. D Smugglers and Foreign Exchange Manipulators (Forfeiture of Property) Act (SAFEMA)

59. Which of the following best describes the scope of the recent advisory issued by IIT-Roorkee regarding political activities?

    1. A It prohibits all forms of social media usage by students.
    2. B It requires prior permission for political activities and public statements on political matters by the campus community.
    3. C It mandates that all students must register with a political party to participate in campus debates.
    4. D It applies exclusively to the faculty members of the institute.

60. What is the primary objective of the inquiry committee constituted by the Telangana government regarding the Banswada hospital incident?

    1. A To assess the medical necessity and adherence to clinical protocols of the surgeries
    2. B To investigate the political affiliations of the hospital staff
    3. C To recommend the closure of the Area Hospital
    4. D To evaluate the financial expenditure of the hospital

61. Which of the following bodies is primarily responsible for determining the schedule and business of a State Legislative Assembly session?

    1. A The State Finance Commission
    2. B The State Cabinet
    3. C The Business Advisory Committee
    4. D The Office of the Governor

62. Which of the following agencies is primarily involved in the coordination of the Char Dham Yatra safety protocols as per recent reports?

    1. A National Disaster Management Authority
    2. B State Disaster Response Force
    3. C Border Roads Organisation
    4. D Central Industrial Security Force

63. Which ministry is responsible for summoning foreign diplomats to convey India's concerns regarding the safety of Indian nationals abroad?

    1. A Ministry of Defence
    2. B Ministry of External Affairs
    3. C Ministry of Shipping
    4. D Ministry of Home Affairs

64. In the context of the recent accident at the Teesta State-VI Hydroelectric Project, which gas was identified as the primary cause of the explosion and toxic release?

    1. A Sulfur Dioxide
    2. B Hydrogen Sulfide
    3. C Carbon Monoxide
    4. D Methane