31 July 2026

Quiz — 31 July 2026

Every prelims question from this edition. Tap an option to check it; what you answer is remembered on this device.

Questions

1. According to the Anoop Baranwal judgment (2023), which of the following members was originally included in the selection panel for the Chief Election Commissioner?

   1. A The Chief Justice of India
   2. B The President of India
   3. C The Union Law Minister
   4. D The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

2. Which of the following best describes the 'precautionary principle' in the context of environmental law?

   1. A A legal framework that prioritizes economic development over environmental conservation.
   2. B A principle requiring that measures be taken to prevent irreversible harm even in the absence of scientific certainty.
   3. C A policy allowing for the retroactive assessment of environmental damage.
   4. D A mechanism to replace imprisonment with monetary fines for environmental offenders.

3. Which of the following components are identified as the core pillars of India's existing Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) stack?

   1. A Aadhaar, GSTN, and CoWIN
   2. B UPI, Digilocker, and e-NAM
   3. C Aadhaar, UPI, and PM-JAY
   4. D Aadhaar, UPI, and DEPA

4. What is the primary objective of the proposed 'Unified Intelligence Interface' (UII) in the context of India's AI strategy?

   1. A To create an interoperable API gateway for accessing various AI models
   2. B To replace private cloud providers with a state-run monopoly
   3. C To restrict the export of Indian-trained AI models to foreign countries
   4. D To centralize all AI training data under a single government server

5. Which of the following organizations were involved in the study evaluating the impact of E20 fuel on vehicle performance?

   1. A ARAI, SIAM, and IOCL
   2. B NITI Aayog, ARAI, and Ministry of Petroleum
   3. C Bureau of Indian Standards, SIAM, and Ministry of Road Transport
   4. D ARAI, IOCL, and Ministry of Environment

6. According to the study cited, what is the approximate reduction in carbon emissions when using E20 fuel compared to E10?

   1. A 20%
   2. B 30%
   3. C 10%
   4. D 40%

7. The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, was primarily introduced to achieve which of the following objectives?

   1. A To privatize the conduct of all national-level entrance examinations
   2. B To ensure merit, consistency, transparency, and credibility in the public examination system
   3. C To mandate a Supreme Court-monitored committee for all future government recruitments
   4. D To abolish the management quota system in all private medical institutions

8. According to the Annual Status of Education Report (ASER) 2024, what percentage of rural Indian households have access to the internet?

   1. A 50%
   2. B 68%
   3. C 26.5%
   4. D 37%

9. According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD), what is the threshold for an event to be classified as a cloudburst?

   1. A 10 cm of rain in 60 minutes over 20-30 sq. km
   2. B 15 cm of rain in 2 hours over 50 sq. km
   3. C 20 cm of rain in 1 hour over 100 sq. km
   4. D 5 cm of rain in 30 minutes over 10 sq. km

10. Which of the following best describes the structural limitation of establishing fast-track courts as discussed in the context of Indian judicial reforms?

    1. A They are required to operate without any support staff to ensure cost-efficiency.
    2. B They often rely on the redeployment of existing judges rather than expanding total judicial capacity.
    3. C They are exclusively funded by international judicial aid organizations.
    4. D They are constitutionally prohibited from handling criminal matters.

11. Which of the following sectors is identified as having shown consistent double-digit growth in eight out of the last 10 months according to recent IIP data?

    1. A Capital Goods
    2. B Consumer Non-durables
    3. C Mining and Quarrying
    4. D Electricity Generation

12. Which of the following best describes the primary objective of the SHANTI framework as proposed in the context of India's maritime policy?

    1. A To provide a normative framework for trust-based, demand-driven maritime cooperation
    2. B To establish military dominance in the Malacca Strait
    3. C To replace existing regional organizations like BIMSTEC with a new centralized authority
    4. D To focus exclusively on bilateral defense pacts with littoral states

13. Which of the following documents mandates the constitution of a 'Board of Visitors' for prisons in every district?

    1. A The National Policy on Prison Reforms, 2020
    2. B The Prisons Act, 1894
    3. C The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
    4. D The Model Prison Manual, 2016

14. What is the primary function of the 'Board of Visitors' in the context of prison administration?

    1. A To provide legal representation to undertrial prisoners
    2. B To oversee the judicial sentencing process of inmates
    3. C To conduct regular inspections and monitor inmate welfare
    4. D To manage the financial budget of the state prison department

15. What is the current wage ceiling for contributions under the Employees Provident Fund (EPF) as per the 2014 notification?

    1. A ₹10,000
    2. B ₹25,000
    3. C ₹21,000
    4. D ₹15,000

16. Which of the following statements best describes the nature of the Employee Pension Scheme (EPS) as explained by the EPFO?

    1. A It is a defined contribution scheme where the government guarantees returns.
    2. B It is a voluntary savings scheme with no fixed wage ceiling for contributions.
    3. C It is a pooled fund based on member contributions intended for long-term sustainability.
    4. D It is a government-funded corpus for all citizens.

17. Which of the following bodies is responsible for the adjudication of the Mahanadi river water dispute?

    1. A Central Water Commission
    2. B Supreme Court of India
    3. C Inter-State Council
    4. D Mahanadi Water Disputes Tribunal

18. Under the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, what is the maximum term of imprisonment for an offence related to the national anthem?

    1. A Three years
    2. B Five years
    3. C One year
    4. D Two years

19. Which of the following best describes the nature of the PM-SHRI scheme in the context of Indian federalism?

    1. A A private-public partnership model independent of government funding.
    2. B A centrally sponsored scheme requiring an MoU between the Centre and States.
    3. C A purely state-funded initiative for school infrastructure.
    4. D A constitutional mandate requiring mandatory participation by all states.

20. Which of the following best describes the 'atypical, high-intensity, rapid-onset event' classification requested by the Assam government?

    1. A A policy to bypass state-level disaster management authorities during emergencies.
    2. B A framework to allow flexible norms for damage assessment and assistance.
    3. C A mechanism to trigger immediate international humanitarian aid.
    4. D A permanent legal status for flood-prone districts under the Disaster Management Act.

21. According to the 2018 study by Government Medical College, Srinagar, which of the following was the most prevalent psychiatric condition reported among pellet gun victims?

    1. A Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
    2. B Adjustment disorder
    3. C Panic disorder
    4. D Depression

22. Which of the following bodies is currently responsible for the mandatory audit of the PM CARES Fund?

    1. A Independent auditors appointed by the Trust
    2. B Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG)
    3. C Public Accounts Committee
    4. D Central Vigilance Commission

23. Which body is the apex authority responsible for monitoring the implementation of water release orders as per the Supreme Court’s verdict on the Cauvery dispute?

    1. A Cauvery Water Regulation Committee (CWRC)
    2. B Inter-State River Water Disputes Tribunal
    3. C Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA)
    4. D Central Water Commission (CWC)

24. What is the primary objective of the Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool (BMIP)?

    1. A To provide health insurance for port workers
    2. B To fund the construction of new deep-sea ports
    3. C To provide uninterrupted war risk insurance capacity to Indian stakeholders
    4. D To regulate international maritime trade tariffs

25. What is the maximum indemnity limit provided under the newly launched sovereign-backed P&I insurance product?

    1. A $1 billion
    2. B $1.5 billion
    3. C $2 billion
    4. D $500 million

26. According to the World Gold Council data for Q1FY27, which segment of gold demand in India witnessed the highest percentage growth in value terms?

    1. A Recycled gold
    2. B Gold ETF demand
    3. C Bar and Coin demand
    4. D Jewellery demand

27. What was the primary trend observed in India's gold imports during Q1FY27 compared to the year-ago period?

    1. A Increased by 6%
    2. B Increased by 23%
    3. C Decreased by 23%
    4. D Remained stagnant

28. The National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) is being constructed at which of the following historical sites?

    1. A Kalibangan
    2. B Lothal
    3. C Dholavira
    4. D Rakhigarhi

29. Which of the following is a primary architectural feature of the NMHC design inspired by Harappan planning?

    1. A Centralized temple-style architecture
    2. B Use of Gothic arches
    3. C Elevated plinths to mitigate flooding
    4. D Use of timber-frame construction

30. Which of the following best describes the Supreme Court's recent directive regarding the Bhojshala-Kamal Maula complex?

    1. A It declared the complex as a protected archaeological monument under the ASI.
    2. B It mandated that the complex be used exclusively for the worship of goddess Saraswati.
    3. C It directed the state to consult with petitioners to identify land for Friday namaz near the complex.
    4. D It ordered the immediate closure of the complex for all religious activities.

31. Which of the following best describes the 'breach of privilege' in the context of the Indian Parliament?

    1. A A violation of the fundamental rights of a citizen by a Member of Parliament.
    2. B The failure of a Minister to attend a session of the House when summoned by the President.
    3. C A disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament regarding the passage of a constitutional amendment bill.
    4. D An act or omission that obstructs or impedes either House of Parliament in the performance of its functions.

32. In the context of the Indian criminal justice system, what is the primary role of a 'closure report' filed by an investigative agency like the CBI?

    1. A It is a document submitted when the agency finds no sufficient evidence to proceed with a prosecution.
    2. B It is a judicial order that prevents the accused from leaving the country.
    3. C It is a formal request to the court to initiate a trial against the accused.
    4. D It is a mandatory report submitted to the Parliament after every investigation.

33. Which of the following best describes the nature of centrally sponsored scholarship schemes in India?

    1. A Fully funded by the Union Government without state participation
    2. B Fully funded by State Governments with no central oversight
    3. C Shared financial responsibility between the Centre and States
    4. D Funded exclusively through international grants and aid

34. Which of the following bodies is primarily responsible for reviewing national security implications arising from international conflicts in India?

    1. A Cabinet Committee on Security
    2. B National Security Council
    3. C Ministry of External Affairs
    4. D NITI Aayog

35. The legal principle 'Nemo iudex in causa sua' is primarily associated with which of the following?

    1. A Rule of law in international treaties
    2. B Principles of natural justice
    3. C Doctrine of basic structure
    4. D Separation of powers

36. The 'BHAVYA Rasayan' scheme, as mentioned in recent reports, is primarily aimed at:

    1. A Promoting organic farming practices
    2. B Modernizing existing textile manufacturing units
    3. C Establishing dedicated chemicals hubs across the country
    4. D Providing subsidies for pharmaceutical research and development

37. Which Article of the Indian Constitution defines the extent of the executive power of a State?

    1. A Article 168
    2. B Article 162
    3. C Article 154
    4. D Article 166

38. According to the Madras High Court, which constitutional provisions are violated if compassionate appointments bypass established seniority-based waiting lists?

    1. A Articles 19 and 21
    2. B Articles 14 and 21
    3. C Articles 16 and 21
    4. D Articles 14 and 16

39. The Bhakra Beas Management Board (BBMB) is responsible for the administration and control of which of the following?

    1. A All inter-state river water projects in North India
    2. B Only the Bhakra Dam project
    3. C Bhakra and Beas projects
    4. D The distribution of water exclusively for irrigation purposes

40. With the establishment of a dedicated NIA police station in a state, which of the following powers is primarily conferred upon the agency?

    1. A The authority to appoint state-level judicial magistrates for terrorism cases
    2. B The power to supersede all state police investigations without prior notification
    3. C The authority to register FIRs directly within the state for scheduled offences
    4. D The power to legislate on state-specific criminal matters

41. Which Article of the Indian Constitution directs the State to ensure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity and provides free legal aid?

    1. A Article 44
    2. B Article 39A
    3. C Article 32
    4. D Article 21

42. The proposed 'Delhi Land Records Bill, 2026' primarily aims to achieve which of the following?

    1. A Transfer of land management authority to the central government
    2. B Privatisation of municipal land holdings
    3. C Implementation of a new property tax structure for commercial buildings
    4. D Creation of a consolidated digital record and unique identity for properties

43. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of 'base-editing' in gene therapy?

    1. A It cuts both strands of the DNA double helix to remove a gene.
    2. B It converts one DNA letter directly into another without cutting both strands of the double helix.
    3. C It uses adeno-associated viruses to replace entire chromosomes.
    4. D It relies on chemical inhibitors to stop the expression of mutated proteins.

44. What is a known clinical risk associated with the use of high doses of adeno-associated viruses (AAVs) in gene therapy?

    1. A Immediate conversion of all DNA bases in the body.
    2. B Complete inhibition of the body's natural DNA repair mechanisms.
    3. C Permanent alteration of the patient's germline cells.
    4. D Severe immune reactions and complications like thrombotic microangiopathy.

45. With reference to urban development, what does the 'land pooling' model primarily aim to achieve?

    1. A Privatization of all public utility services in urban areas
    2. B Mandatory conversion of agricultural land into industrial zones
    3. C Direct government acquisition of land at market rates
    4. D Landowners retaining ownership while contributing land for infrastructure development

46. Which of the following is considered a key strategy for 'water-positive' urban development in Indian cities?

    1. A Reviving traditional water structures like temple tanks and eris for rainwater harvesting
    2. B Increasing the use of impervious surfaces to prevent soil erosion
    3. C Replacing traditional water bodies with concrete drainage systems
    4. D Prioritizing high-rise construction over groundwater recharge zones

47. Which of the following geographical features is a primary focus of the ongoing de-escalation negotiations between the United States and Iran, as reported in recent diplomatic efforts?

    1. A Bab-el-Mandeb Strait
    2. B Strait of Hormuz
    3. C Suez Canal
    4. D Strait of Malacca

48. The Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) functions under the administrative control of which of the following?

    1. A Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
    2. B Cabinet Secretariat
    3. C Ministry of Defence
    4. D Ministry of Home Affairs

49. Which of the following components are typically found in biopharmaceutical fermentation wastewater that make it challenging to treat?

    1. A Volatile organic compounds and pesticide residues
    2. B Live production microorganisms and antibiotic resistance genes
    3. C High concentrations of synthetic polymers and plastics
    4. D Heavy metals and radioactive isotopes

50. The 'water technology initiative programme' mentioned in the context is supported by which of the following government bodies?

    1. A Department of Science and Technology
    2. B Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
    3. C Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
    4. D Ministry of Jal Shakti

51. Which of the following best describes the legal provision for 'anticipatory bail' under the Indian legal framework?

    1. A A post-arrest remedy available only after the filing of a charge sheet.
    2. B A direction to release a person on bail issued even before the person is arrested.
    3. C A mandatory relief granted to all public servants accused of corruption.
    4. D A discretionary power exercised exclusively by the Supreme Court of India.

52. Which of the following bodies is primarily responsible for investigating cases involving alleged police misconduct in the context of encounter deaths, as per standard legal procedure in India?

    1. A Criminal Investigation Department
    2. B Intelligence Bureau
    3. C Central Bureau of Investigation
    4. D National Investigation Agency

53. Which of the following is the primary meteorological factor identified as the cause for the recent flooding in the Mahanadi and Brahmani river systems in Odisha?

    1. A Tsunami-induced tidal flooding
    2. B Cloudburst in the Western Ghats
    3. C Deep depression weather system
    4. D Cyclonic storm surge

54. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) was primarily enacted to provide for:

    1. A The more effective prevention of certain unlawful activities of individuals and associations
    2. B The regulation of foreign contributions to non-governmental organizations
    3. C The protection of human rights during civil unrest
    4. D The management of internal security during national emergencies

55. Which of the following statements regarding Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is correct?

    1. A ALT is considered one of the earliest laboratory markers of liver injury.
    2. B Normal ALT levels always rule out the presence of significant or advanced liver disease.
    3. C ALT is found exclusively in liver cells and nowhere else in the human body.
    4. D An elevated ALT level is a definitive diagnostic confirmation of liver disease.

56. Which of the following ports in Egypt, recently reported as the site of a drone strike, is located near the entrance to the Suez Canal?

    1. A Port Said
    2. B Alexandria
    3. C Damietta
    4. D Suez

57. As per the recent reports on the Ebola outbreak in Congo, what was the approximate number of recorded cases?

    1. A 5,000
    2. B 3,442
    3. C 1,500
    4. D 1,521

58. Which of the following best describes the recent incident involving Poland and the ongoing Russia-Ukraine conflict?

    1. A A coordinated cyber-attack on Polish critical infrastructure by Russian forces.
    2. B A direct NATO military strike against Russian assets within Ukraine.
    3. C A deliberate Russian ground invasion of Polish territory.
    4. D A Russian missile entered Polish airspace and landed in a rural area without causing casualties.

59. What was the reported consolidated revenue of Tata Steel for the June-ended quarter?

    1. A ₹9,908 crore
    2. B ₹84,173 crore
    3. C ₹2,318 crore
    4. D ₹60,794 crore

60. Which of the following regulatory bodies is responsible for the approval of pharmaceutical products in Brazil?

    1. A COFEPRIS
    2. B ANVISA
    3. C INVIMA
    4. D ANMAT

61. What is the primary purpose of a 'Form 483' issued by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (U.S. FDA)?

    1. A To provide a certificate of Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) compliance
    2. B To revoke the manufacturing license of a pharmaceutical company
    3. C To grant final marketing approval for a new drug product
    4. D To notify a facility of observations made by inspectors regarding potential non-compliance

62. Which of the following metrics is commonly used to measure the profitability of a business segment before accounting for interest and tax expenses?

    1. A AUM
    2. B bps
    3. C EBIT
    4. D YoY

63. Which of the following manufacturing facilities is currently the largest passenger vehicle production site for Suzuki globally?

    1. A Hansalpur, Gujarat
    2. B Sanand, Gujarat
    3. C Gurugram, Haryana
    4. D Manesar, Haryana

64. Which of the following factors were cited by Hyundai Motor India Ltd as primary reasons for the decline in Q1 FY27 net profit?

    1. A Production constraints and the conflict in West Asia
    2. B Decreased domestic demand and high interest rates
    3. C Supply chain disruptions in East Asia and currency devaluation
    4. D Increased corporate tax rates and rising raw material costs

65. With reference to the payment ecosystem in India, consider the following statements regarding payment aggregators: 1. Payment aggregators are entities that facilitate e-commerce sites and merchants to accept various payment instruments from customers. 2. They are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A Both 1 and 2
    2. B 1 only
    3. C Neither 1 nor 2
    4. D 2 only

66. Which of the following types of bank accounts are explicitly exempted from charges related to the non-maintenance of minimum average balance?

    1. A Current Accounts
    2. B Non-Resident External (NRE) Accounts
    3. C Fixed Deposit Linked Savings Accounts
    4. D Basic Savings Bank Deposit Accounts (BSBDA)

67. The Tamil Nadu state raffle scheme, which was recently revived, was first introduced in which year?

    1. A 1968
    2. B 1975
    3. C 1965
    4. D 1960

68. Which body was responsible for representing Indian universities at the Congress of British Universities regarding the recognition of degrees?

    1. A The University Grants Commission
    2. B The Inter-University Board of India
    3. C The British Council of India
    4. D The Delhi Academic Senate

69. With reference to agave spirits, consider the following statements: 1. Tequila can be produced from any species of agave. 2. Mezcal is protected by a denomination of origin. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A Neither 1 nor 2
    2. B 2 only
    3. C Both 1 and 2
    4. D 1 only

70. In the context of the Indian judicial system, what is the primary purpose of an appeal filed by the State against an acquittal in a criminal case?

    1. A To challenge the trial court's assessment of evidence and legal findings
    2. B To initiate a fresh investigation by a different police agency
    3. C To ensure the accused remains in custody until a final verdict is reached
    4. D To bypass the High Court and move the case directly to the Supreme Court

71. The 'Samudra Pradakshina' expedition, recently in the news, refers to:

    1. A The first-ever Tri-Service all-women circumnavigation sailing expedition.
    2. B A disaster relief mission conducted by the Indian Coast Guard.
    3. C A deep-sea mining exploration project in the Indian Ocean.
    4. D A joint naval exercise between India and ASEAN nations.

72. Which of the following figures is mentioned in the context of being saved from a predetermined fate through divine intervention in spiritual discourse?

    1. A Soorapadman
    2. B Arunagirinatha
    3. C Gundodaran
    4. D Ravana

73. The 'scientific temper' is mentioned in which part of the Indian Constitution?

    1. A Fundamental Rights
    2. B Fundamental Duties
    3. C Preamble
    4. D Directive Principles of State Policy

74. Which of the following is the primary function of the Uttar Pradesh Subordinate Service Selection Commission (UPSSSC)?

    1. A Conducting judicial service examinations for the state
    2. B Recruitment for all Group A and B state civil services
    3. C Recruitment for Group C and D posts as notified by the State Government
    4. D Management of higher education university faculty appointments

75. Which agency is responsible for filing the preliminary chargesheet in the Wadakkanchery LIFE Mission case?

    1. A Serious Fraud Investigation Office
    2. B State Vigilance and Anti-Corruption Bureau
    3. C Enforcement Directorate
    4. D Central Bureau of Investigation

76. In which Indian state is the Kannapuram forest range located?

    1. A Karnataka
    2. B Odisha
    3. C Telangana
    4. D Andhra Pradesh

77. Which of the following bodies is responsible for the operational management of state-run bus services and passenger amenities during the Kanwar Yatra in Uttar Pradesh?

    1. A Uttar Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation (UPSRTC)
    2. B Provincial Armed Constabulary (PAC)
    3. C Uttar Pradesh Police Department
    4. D Ministry of Home Affairs

78. Which of the following best describes the distinction between a 'question paper leak' and 'examination malpractice' as often interpreted by administrative authorities?

    1. A A leak refers to digital distribution, while malpractice refers to physical copying.
    2. B There is no legal distinction between a leak and malpractice in Indian examination law.
    3. C A leak refers to unauthorized access before the exam, while malpractice can occur during the exam.
    4. D A leak is a criminal offense, whereas malpractice is only an administrative violation.

79. Which of the following authorities is primarily responsible for ensuring fire safety compliance in educational institutions within the National Capital Territory of Delhi?

    1. A Union Ministry of Education
    2. B National Disaster Management Authority
    3. C Delhi Fire Service
    4. D University Grants Commission

80. Which of the following administrative divisions of Chhattisgarh were reported as the worst-hit by the recent heavy rainfall and flooding?

    1. A Bastar, Durg, and Bilaspur
    2. B Raipur, Bastar, and Durg
    3. C Raipur, Surguja, and Bastar
    4. D Bilaspur, Surguja, and Raipur

81. The 'Semester Away Programme' recently approved by Delhi University aims to facilitate:

    1. A Internships exclusively within the public sector
    2. B Academic collaboration with foreign higher education institutions
    3. C Mandatory vocational training for all undergraduate students
    4. D Distance learning for students in remote areas

82. Based on the findings of the magisterial inquiry into the Palam building fire, which of the following was identified as the primary technical cause of the blaze?

    1. A Structural collapse due to poor construction
    2. B Gas cylinder explosion
    3. C Illegal storage of combustible chemicals
    4. D Electric short circuit near the main circuit breaker box

83. The Delhi Jal Board (DJB) has identified commercial properties for potential attachment due to outstanding dues. What is the threshold amount of outstanding dues specified for this action?

    1. A ₹10 lakh
    2. B ₹5 lakh
    3. C ₹50 lakh
    4. D ₹25 lakh

84. What is the primary purpose of the 'silence period' enforced by the Election Commission before the conclusion of polling?

    1. A To facilitate the movement of security forces between districts
    2. B To provide a mandatory rest period for polling station officials
    3. C To prevent campaigning and influence on voters 48 hours before polling ends
    4. D To allow candidates to finalize their financial expenditure reports

85. Under the Indian legal framework, which authority generally holds the power to withdraw from the prosecution of a case?

    1. A The State Police Chief exclusively
    2. B The President of India
    3. C The Public Prosecutor with the consent of the court
    4. D The Supreme Court of India suo motu