19 August 2026

Quiz — 19 August 2026

Every prelims question from this edition. Tap an option to check it; what you answer is remembered on this device.

Questions

1. What is the primary funding structure for the Viksit Bharat–Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (VB-G RAM G) for most states?

   1. A 50% Central and 50% State contribution
   2. B 60% Central and 40% State contribution
   3. C 75% Central and 25% State contribution
   4. D 100% Central funding

2. Which of the following statements regarding the Census 2027 questionnaire is correct?

   1. A It includes new data fields for parental details and specific identification documents like Aadhaar.
   2. B It is being conducted exclusively through paper-based enumeration across all states simultaneously.
   3. C It contains exactly 29 questions as per the 2011 standard.
   4. D It mandates the declaration of caste for all respondents without exception.

3. The 'SRIJAN Defence Portal' is primarily associated with which of the following objectives?

   1. A Monitoring the export of surplus defence equipment
   2. B Providing a platform for the indigenisation of defence items
   3. C Managing the recruitment process for the Indian Armed Forces
   4. D Facilitating the procurement of foreign defence technology

4. Which government body is responsible for notifying the Positive Indigenisation List?

   1. A Ministry of External Affairs
   2. B Department of Defence Production (DDP)
   3. C NITI Aayog
   4. D Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)

5. Which of the following best describes the findings of recent quasi-experimental studies regarding the impact of the Bihar alcohol ban?

   1. A A complete elimination of all reported crimes against women in the state.
   2. B A significant increase in intimate partner violence across all demographics.
   3. C No measurable impact on either social violence or public health outcomes.
   4. D A substantial reduction in intimate partner violence and non-communicable diseases among men.

6. Under the recent government initiative to promote piped natural gas (PNG), what is the incentive provided to eligible city-gas distributors (CGDs) for each incremental billed domestic-PNG connection?

   1. A An additional allocation of 200 SCM of APM natural gas
   2. B A tax rebate on LNG imports
   3. C A subsidy of 200 rupees per connection
   4. D A direct grant for pipeline infrastructure development

7. According to the Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell (PPAC) data, what percentage of India's total crude oil consumption is met through imports?

   1. A 82.0%
   2. B 75.5%
   3. C 92.3%
   4. D 88.5%

8. Which of the following best describes the legal distinction between Section 298 and Section 299 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita?

   1. A Section 298 deals with electronic communication while Section 299 deals with physical vandalism.
   2. B Section 298 is a colonial-era provision while Section 299 is a post-independence amendment.
   3. C Section 298 mandates life imprisonment for all religious insults, while Section 299 mandates fines only.
   4. D Section 298 focuses on conduct-based desecration of places of worship, while Section 299 addresses expressive insults to religious beliefs.

9. In the case of Ramji Lal Modi vs State of Uttar Pradesh (1957), the Supreme Court upheld the constitutionality of the blasphemy provision on which of the following grounds?

   1. A Protection of religious minorities
   2. B Public order exception to free speech
   3. C Maintenance of national integrity
   4. D Prevention of communal violence

10. According to the 'principle of increasing risk' in corporate finance, which of the following best describes the relationship between firm size and cost of credit?

    1. A The cost of credit remains constant regardless of the firm's capital structure.
    2. B Interest costs are irrelevant for all firms when the economy is in a growth phase.
    3. C Smaller firms face rising cost curves sooner because they have less own capital to leverage.
    4. D Larger firms face higher interest costs due to market saturation.

11. Which of the following processes is primarily responsible for the periodic updating and purification of electoral rolls in India?

    1. A Special Intensive Revision (SIR)
    2. B National Population Register update
    3. C Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) calibration
    4. D Delimitation Commission exercise

12. According to the report of the Sivaraman Committee, what proportion of India's 3,000 urban centres currently possess full sewerage coverage?

    1. A Approximately 500 centres
    2. B Less than 50 centres
    3. C Approximately 1,000 centres
    4. D Approximately 200 centres

13. Which of the following best describes the shift in Indian import patterns from China as noted in recent reports?

    1. A A complete cessation of Chinese imports to comply with international tariff regulations.
    2. B A transition from importing finished goods to importing intermediate goods for domestic assembly.
    3. C A decrease in intermediate goods and an increase in finished consumer products.
    4. D A shift toward importing raw materials exclusively for the agricultural sector.

14. Which of the following sectors are covered under the European Union’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM)?

    1. A Coal, Natural Gas, and Solar Panels
    2. B Textiles, Agriculture, and Software
    3. C Automobiles, Pharmaceuticals, and Chemicals
    4. D Iron, Steel, Cement, and Fertilizers

15. What is the primary stated objective of the European Union's Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM)?

    1. A To prevent 'carbon leakage' by equalizing carbon costs for imports
    2. B To promote the export of European green technology
    3. C To provide subsidies for renewable energy in developing nations
    4. D To increase revenue for the European Union budget

16. Which section of the Bhartiya Nagarika Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, prescribes hanging as the method of execution?

    1. A Section 412(2)
    2. B Section 354(5)
    3. C Section 393(5)
    4. D Section 299(1)

17. Under the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, the authority to decide on disqualification of a member of the House on the ground of defection rests with:

    1. A The Election Commission of India
    2. B The Speaker or Chairman of the House
    3. C The President of India
    4. D The High Court of the concerned state

18. Which of the following security measures is being proposed for the overhaul of the National Testing Agency's (NTA) Confidential Operations (CONOPS) architecture?

    1. A Implementation of air-gapped systems and device-deposit protocols
    2. B Replacement of the governing board with members of the judiciary
    3. C Complete outsourcing of paper setting to private international firms
    4. D Abolition of all physical examination centers in favor of remote proctoring

19. Which of the following best describes the legal status of the PM CARES Fund as per its creation?

    1. A A government department under the Ministry of Finance
    2. B A constitutional body established under Article 266
    3. C A statutory body under the Disaster Management Act, 2005
    4. D A public charitable trust

20. Which state is responsible for approximately one-third of India's total sugar production?

    1. A Maharashtra
    2. B Karnataka
    3. C Tamil Nadu
    4. D Uttar Pradesh

21. As of December 2025, which state accounts for the highest percentage of operational sugarcane-harvesting machines in India?

    1. A Maharashtra
    2. B Gujarat
    3. C Karnataka
    4. D Uttar Pradesh

22. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to pass such decrees or orders as are necessary for doing 'complete justice' in any cause or matter pending before it?

    1. A Article 136
    2. B Article 32
    3. C Article 141
    4. D Article 142

23. According to the recent projections by India Ratings & Research (Ind-Ra), what is the estimated GDP growth rate for India in the current fiscal year?

    1. A 6.8%
    2. B 7.6%
    3. C 6.7%
    4. D 6.6%

24. Under the Constitution of India, the subject of 'Education' is placed in which of the following lists?

    1. A Union List
    2. B Residuary Powers
    3. C Concurrent List
    4. D State List

25. Under which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000, is the government empowered to issue directions for blocking public access to information through any computer resource?

    1. A Section 69A
    2. B Section 80
    3. C Section 66A
    4. D Section 79

26. With reference to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), which of the following statements is correct regarding the initiation of an investigation?

    1. A The PMLA requires the prior consent of the State Government to initiate any probe.
    2. B An investigation can only be initiated if a predicate offence has been proven in a court of law.
    3. C Investigations under the PMLA do not strictly require a predicate offence to be established to remain valid.
    4. D The Enforcement Directorate is solely responsible for defining what constitutes a predicate offence under the Act.

27. According to the Delhi Fire Services, what is the estimated reduction in fire-related deaths if sprinklers and fire detectors are made mandatory in buildings?

    1. A 50%
    2. B 85%
    3. C 97%
    4. D 75%

28. What is the age eligibility criteria for women under the Delhi Lakshmi Yojana?

    1. A 25 to 60 years
    2. B 21 to 60 years
    3. C 18 to 65 years
    4. D 18 to 50 years

29. What is the monthly financial assistance amount provided to eligible beneficiaries under the Delhi Lakshmi Yojana?

    1. A ₹2,000
    2. B ₹3,000
    3. C ₹2,500
    4. D ₹1,500

30. Which of the following categories is used by the Election Commission to classify voters who are not found at their registered address during electoral roll revision?

    1. A Non-Resident Electors
    2. B Draft Roll Exclusion
    3. C ASDDO
    4. D Form 6-A

31. Under the amended Maharashtra Public Trusts Act, what is the maximum permissible proportion of lifetime trustees in a public trust?

    1. A 33%
    2. B 50%
    3. C 25%
    4. D 10%

32. According to the National Education Policy, what is the primary purpose of the research pathway introduced in the final year of the four-year undergraduate structure?

    1. A To reduce the total duration of the undergraduate degree to three years.
    2. B To mandate that all students pursue a PhD immediately after graduation.
    3. C To provide students with an institutional equivalent of an apprenticeship to solve real-world problems.
    4. D To replace all classroom-based learning with online modules.

33. Which of the following strategic waterways is described as a critical chokepoint for global seaborne oil trade, currently impacted by the conflict in the Persian Gulf?

    1. A Bab-el-Mandeb Strait
    2. B Strait of Malacca
    3. C Strait of Hormuz
    4. D Suez Canal

34. The dispute regarding the registration of homeopathic doctors for the practice of modern pharmacology in Maharashtra is currently pending before which judicial body?

    1. A Maharashtra State Medical Council
    2. B Bombay High Court
    3. C National Medical Commission
    4. D Supreme Court of India

35. Under the Odisha flood relief package, what is the agricultural input subsidy provided for irrigated land with 33% or more crop damage?

    1. A ₹17,000 per hectare
    2. B ₹10,000 per hectare
    3. C ₹22,500 per hectare
    4. D ₹8,500 per hectare

36. Which of the following best describes the judicial approach regarding the internal proceedings of a State Legislature as indicated by recent legal precedents?

    1. A The judiciary is required to act as the primary arbiter for all internal party disputes within the legislature.
    2. B The judiciary generally avoids interference in legislative proceedings unless there is a clear violation of constitutional provisions or fundamental rights.
    3. C The Speaker's decisions are immune from judicial review under all circumstances.
    4. D The judiciary has absolute authority to override any decision made by the Speaker.

37. What is the primary function of the helicase enzyme during DNA replication?

    1. A To act as a molecular safety catch for cellular division
    2. B To synthesize new complementary DNA strands
    3. C To unwind and separate the two strands of the DNA double helix
    4. D To relieve the twisting tension ahead of the replication fork

38. Which enzyme is responsible for preventing DNA from becoming tangled or breaking during the replication process?

    1. A Helicase
    2. B ATP synthase
    3. C Polymerase
    4. D Topoisomerase

39. Which of the following statements regarding the International Criminal Court (ICC) is correct?

    1. A The United States is a founding member state of the ICC.
    2. B The ICC has universal jurisdiction over all crimes committed globally.
    3. C The ICC is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
    4. D The ICC is governed by the Rome Statute.

40. Which of the following best describes the recent security developments reported by the UAE Defence Ministry regarding ballistic missile activity?

    1. A One missile landed outside territorial waters, and one landed within.
    2. B Two missiles were successfully intercepted over the UAE capital.
    3. C Both missiles struck critical oil infrastructure belonging to ADNOC.
    4. D The UAE government confirmed a direct military conflict with neighboring states.

41. Wipro Consumer Care & Lighting recently acquired a majority stake in which skincare brand?

    1. A Lotus Herbals
    2. B Dermatouch
    3. C Mamaearth
    4. D Kaya Skin Clinic

42. Which of the following best describes the role of an Initial Public Offering (IPO) in the context of corporate finance?

    1. A A method for companies to borrow funds from commercial banks at subsidized interest rates
    2. B A mechanism for the government to divest its stake in public sector undertakings
    3. C A regulatory requirement for all small-scale industries to register on the stock exchange
    4. D A process where a private company offers shares to the public for the first time to raise capital

43. With reference to the E20 fuel initiative in India, which of the following statements is correct?

    1. A E20 fuel is exclusively imported from European markets.
    2. B E20 refers to a fuel blend containing 20% ethanol and 80% gasoline.
    3. C E20 fuel is currently incompatible with all passenger vehicles manufactured in India.
    4. D The government mandate for E20 compliance applies only to public transport vehicles.

44. Which of the following factors were cited as headwinds for domestic proprietary traders affecting the performance of the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)?

    1. A Introduction of new derivative products, lower clearing costs, and higher dividend payouts
    2. B Reduction in corporate tax, lower interest rates, and increased foreign institutional investment
    3. C Increase in STT, new RBI bank guarantee norms, and Closing Auction Session issues
    4. D Global market volatility, currency appreciation, and reduction in regulatory oversight

45. The ongoing federal trial involving Meta Platforms in the United States primarily addresses which of the following concerns?

    1. A Tax evasion strategies employed by multinational technology firms
    2. B Monopolistic practices in the cloud computing sector
    3. C The impact of social media design on youth mental health and data privacy
    4. D The role of artificial intelligence in political election interference

46. What was the code name for the Indian Air Force's operations during the Kargil War?

    1. A Operation Safed Sagar
    2. B Operation Vijay
    3. C Operation Sindoor
    4. D Operation Meghdoot

47. Which Indian Army officer, posthumously awarded the Param Vir Chakra, was killed at point 4875 during the Kargil War?

    1. A Yogendra Singh Yadav
    2. B Manoj Kumar Pandey
    3. C Sanjay Kumar
    4. D Vikram Batra

48. The exhibition of Old Indian Paintings and Textiles held in Bombay featured works spanning which of the following periods?

    1. A 2nd century B.C. to early 19th century
    2. B 4th century A.D. to 17th century
    3. C 3rd century B.C. to 20th century
    4. D 1st century A.D. to 18th century

49. Under the Indian legal framework, which of the following best describes the judicial power to cancel bail once it has been granted by a trial court?

    1. A Bail can only be cancelled by the Supreme Court of India.
    2. B The High Court can cancel bail if it finds that the discretion exercised by the trial court was arbitrary or ignored relevant material.
    3. C The High Court has no jurisdiction to review bail orders passed by a lower court.
    4. D Bail can only be cancelled if the accused is convicted of a new offense while on bail.

50. Which chapter of the Taittiriya Upanishad contains the traditional convocation address given by a guru to a student?

    1. A Shikshavalli
    2. B Kena
    3. C Bhriguvalli
    4. D Anandavalli

51. H1N1 influenza is classified as which of the following?

    1. A A subtype of influenza A
    2. B A bacterial respiratory infection
    3. C A subtype of influenza B
    4. D A fungal pulmonary disease

52. Which of the following best describes the primary objective of a Special Investigation Team (SIT) in the Indian legal context?

    1. A To draft new legislation regarding the management of religious trusts.
    2. B To conduct specialized, time-bound investigations into complex or sensitive criminal matters.
    3. C To act as a permanent judicial body for settling civil disputes.
    4. D To provide legal counsel to the accused in high-profile criminal cases.

53. Which of the following best describes the current voter identification requirement for general elections in India?

    1. A Only mail-in ballots require photo identification.
    2. B Every voter is required to produce a valid photo identity document.
    3. C Photo identification is only required for voters in urban constituencies.
    4. D Voter identification is optional and based on self-declaration.

54. Under the Indian Constitution, 'Public Order' and 'Police' are subjects listed in which of the following?

    1. A Residuary Powers
    2. B Union List
    3. C State List
    4. D Concurrent List

55. In the context of the Indian criminal justice system, what is the primary standard of proof required for a criminal conviction?

    1. A Beyond reasonable doubt
    2. B Clear and convincing evidence
    3. C Prima facie evidence
    4. D Preponderance of probabilities

56. Which of the following acts provides the legal framework for the prosecution of public servants involved in corruption in India?

    1. A Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
    2. B Public Procurement Act, 2012
    3. C Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003
    4. D Right to Information Act, 2005

57. Which of the following best describes the primary concern regarding the cancellation of recruitment examinations in the context of administrative law?

    1. A The inability of the judiciary to review administrative decisions
    2. B The absence of a constitutional mandate for state-level recruitment
    3. C The violation of the principles of natural justice for appointed employees
    4. D The lack of involvement of the Union Public Service Commission

58. Which of the following writs is specifically designed to protect an individual from unlawful detention by the state?

    1. A Habeas Corpus
    2. B Certiorari
    3. C Quo Warranto
    4. D Mandamus