22 August 2026

Quiz — 22 August 2026

Every prelims question from this edition. Tap an option to check it; what you answer is remembered on this device.

Questions

1. What is the primary objective of the Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme (MPMS) notified by MeitY?

   1. A To impose high tariffs on all imported electronic components
   2. B To incentivize domestic assembly and increase local value addition in smartphone manufacturing
   3. C To nationalize all foreign-owned mobile manufacturing units in India
   4. D To provide direct cash subsidies to consumers for purchasing domestic smartphones

2. Under the MPMS, what is the specific requirement for Indian brands to qualify for incentives compared to other manufacturers?

   1. A They are subject to a higher sales threshold than foreign brands
   2. B They must be majority-owned by Indian citizens and hold intellectual property locally
   3. C They are ineligible for R&D and design incentives
   4. D They must achieve a minimum turnover of ₹10,000 crore

3. What is the current estimated retirement-income replacement rate in India as reported by the PFRDA?

   1. A 20-25%
   2. B 35-40%
   3. C 60-65%
   4. D 50-55%

4. Which of the following is an initiative by the PFRDA to leverage digital platforms for NPS distribution?

   1. A NPS Vatsalya
   2. B NPS Swasthya
   3. C NPS Direct
   4. D StAR NPS

5. Which of the following constitutional articles or provisions generally governs the process of delimitation of parliamentary constituencies in India?

   1. A Article 370
   2. B Article 324
   3. C Article 82
   4. D Article 356

6. Which of the following best describes the concern raised by trade unions regarding the recent Supreme Court judgment on the definition of 'industry'?

   1. A The judgment shifts the focus from the nature of work performed to the institutional status of the employer.
   2. B The judgment declares all charitable institutions as industries under the Industrial Disputes Act.
   3. C The judgment restricts the government from performing sovereign functions.
   4. D The judgment mandates the immediate repeal of the Industrial Relations Code.

7. Under the repealed MGNREGA, what was the established funding ratio between the Central and State governments?

   1. A 75:25
   2. B 50:50
   3. C 90:10
   4. D 60:40

8. In the Indian Constitution, the 'right to work' is primarily addressed under which of the following?

   1. A The Preamble
   2. B Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV)
   3. C Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A)
   4. D Fundamental Rights (Part III)

9. What is the target set by the Union Ministry of New and Renewable Energy for polysilicon manufacturing capacity addition by 2030?

   1. A 30 GW
   2. B 850 GW
   3. C 15 GW
   4. D 42 GW

10. According to the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, what is the estimated capital investment required per gigawatt (GW) for a polysilicon plant including metallurgical grade silicon?

    1. A ₹420 crore
    2. B ₹1,850 crore
    3. C ₹850 crore
    4. D ₹1,000 crore

11. The 'Indo-Pacific Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness' (IPMDA) is an initiative under which of the following groupings?

    1. A Quad
    2. B G20
    3. C ASEAN
    4. D BRICS

12. Which of the following bodies is responsible for managing the water-sharing of the Cauvery river among the basin states?

    1. A Cauvery Water Management Authority
    2. B National Water Development Agency
    3. C Central Water Commission
    4. D Inter-State River Water Disputes Tribunal

13. Which of the following bodies is primarily responsible for granting environmental clearances for major infrastructure projects in India?

    1. A Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
    2. B NITI Aayog
    3. C National Green Tribunal
    4. D State Pollution Control Board

14. Under the recent amendment to the River Ganga (Rejuvenation, Protection and Management) Authorities Order, 2016, what is the return period used to define the 'active floodplain'?

    1. A 1-in-50-year flood
    2. B 1-in-5-year flood
    3. C 1-in-25-year flood
    4. D 1-in-100-year flood

15. Following the recent Supreme Court judgment, what is the mandatory duration of legal practice required for entry into the judicial service starting from April 1, 2027?

    1. A Two years
    2. B Three years
    3. C Six months
    4. D One year

16. Which of the following best describes the 'Land Pooling' model adopted by the Delhi Development Authority?

    1. A The DDA acquires private land at market rates and develops it independently.
    2. B Private landowners pool their land, and the DDA acts as a facilitator for infrastructure development.
    3. C Landowners are required to surrender 100% of their land to the DDA in exchange for cash compensation.
    4. D The government mandates the sale of all agricultural land in Delhi to private developers.

17. Which of the following measures has the Union government implemented to stabilize domestic sugar prices as of August 2025?

    1. A Complete ban on the export of all sugar varieties
    2. B Imposition of a 400-tonne stock limit on sugar dealers
    3. C Mandatory 50% reduction in ethanol production from sugarcane
    4. D Subsidizing sugar retail prices through direct benefit transfers

18. According to the government's recent data, what is the primary feedstock for the majority of ethanol produced in India?

    1. A Molasses
    2. B Maize
    3. C Sugarcane juice
    4. D Broken rice

19. Under the amended Press Note 3 of 2020, what is the threshold of ownership by an entity based in a land-border country that allows for investment via the automatic route?

    1. A Up to 25%
    2. B Up to 5%
    3. C Up to 10%
    4. D Up to 49%

20. Which organization is responsible for authorizing the development of LPG pipeline infrastructure in India?

    1. A Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)
    2. B GAIL (India) Ltd.
    3. C Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
    4. D Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB)

21. With reference to Online Bond Platform Providers (OBPPs) in India, consider the following statements: 1. They are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). 2. SEBI has proposed a new advertisement code to regulate their promotional communications. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A Neither 1 nor 2
    2. B 1 only
    3. C 2 only
    4. D Both 1 and 2

22. What is the primary objective of the IRDAI in enforcing 'Expenses of Management' (EoM) limits on insurance companies?

    1. A To restrict the entry of new players into the Indian insurance market
    2. B To ensure prudent expense management and pass operational efficiency benefits to policyholders
    3. C To mandate the closure of all existing branches of non-compliant insurers
    4. D To increase the profit margins of insurance companies

23. Which regulatory body is responsible for determining the tariff orders for major airports in India?

    1. A Airports Authority of India (AAI)
    2. B Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)
    3. C Airports Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA)
    4. D Ministry of Civil Aviation

24. What is the primary objective of the 'incremental Aggregate Revenue Requirement' formula introduced by AERA?

    1. A To subsidize international travel through higher domestic landing charges
    2. B To ensure passengers pay only for infrastructure that is commissioned and ready for use
    3. C To eliminate all user development fees for domestic passengers
    4. D To maximize the immediate capital expenditure recovery for airport operators

25. The National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) is scheduled to launch a new grievance registration facility on its foundation day. When is this foundation day?

    1. A August 15
    2. B August 23
    3. C January 26
    4. D October 2

26. Which of the following best describes the stated position of the Union government regarding reservation policies for SCs, STs, and OBCs?

    1. A It is a mechanism designed to ensure representation for marginalised communities.
    2. B It is a policy that should be restricted to the 'one family, one reservation' model.
    3. C It is primarily a poverty alleviation scheme for economically weaker sections.
    4. D It is a temporary measure that must be phased out based on income thresholds.

27. According to the recent Calcutta High Court ruling, how is the status of a teacher assigned to Census duty classified?

    1. A As being on official school duty
    2. B As an optional voluntary service
    3. C As a leave of absence from school duties
    4. D As a deputation to the Ministry of Home Affairs

28. What is the theme chosen by India for its BRICS Presidency in 2026?

    1. A Science for Humanity and Global Security
    2. B Digital Transformation and Global Connectivity
    3. C Inclusive Growth and Sustainable Development Goals
    4. D Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability

29. Which of the following documents is primarily issued by the Election Commission of India to eligible citizens to facilitate their participation in the democratic process?

    1. A National Population Register (NPR) slip
    2. B EPIC (Electors Photo Identity Card)
    3. C Permanent Account Number (PAN)
    4. D Aadhar Card

30. Which of the following best describes the 'adjournment sine die' of a legislative house?

    1. A The dissolution of the House by the Governor.
    2. B Adjournment for a specific time, such as an hour or a day.
    3. C Termination of a sitting of the House without naming a day for re-assembly.
    4. D The suspension of a member from the House for unruly behavior.

31. Which body is primarily responsible for issuing the 'Consent to Operate' (CTO) to industrial units in Delhi?

    1. A Delhi Pollution Control Committee
    2. B Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
    3. C National Green Tribunal
    4. D Central Pollution Control Board

32. Which of the following best describes the stated objective of the new financial sanctions proposed by the United States against Iran?

    1. A To promote regional economic integration
    2. B To facilitate immediate diplomatic dialogue
    3. C To encourage humanitarian aid flow
    4. D To target the Iranian leadership

33. Which of the following acts governs the protection of national symbols in India?

    1. A The National Symbols Protection Act, 1950
    2. B The National Integration and Honour Act, 1985
    3. C The Constitutional Symbols Regulation Act, 2002
    4. D The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971

34. Which fundamental right, as interpreted by the Supreme Court of India, encompasses the protection of an individual's personal details and residential privacy?

    1. A Article 19
    2. B Article 21
    3. C Article 25
    4. D Article 14

35. According to the 2026 BIMCO-ICS Seafarer Workforce Report, approximately how many seafarers does India supply to the global maritime industry?

    1. A Approximately 2,25,000
    2. B Approximately 3,11,936
    3. C Approximately 1,50,000
    4. D Approximately 5,00,000

36. Under the current legal framework in India, who is the competent authority to grant sanction for the prosecution of a state cabinet minister?

    1. A The Union Home Minister
    2. B The Chief Justice of the High Court
    3. C The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
    4. D The Governor of the State

37. Which of the following ministries is responsible for granting political clearance for foreign visits by Chief Ministers of Indian States?

    1. A Ministry of Finance
    2. B Ministry of Home Affairs
    3. C Ministry of External Affairs
    4. D Prime Minister's Office

38. Which of the following bodies provides a platform for states to discuss issues of common interest, such as the inter-state movement of goods?

    1. A Zonal Councils
    2. B National Development Council
    3. C Inter-State Council
    4. D NITI Aayog

39. The PESA Act, 1996, which is frequently cited in the context of tribal rights and governance, stands for:

    1. A Protection of Employment in Scheduled Areas Act
    2. B Panchayati Empowerment and Scheduled Areas Act
    3. C Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act
    4. D Public Education and Scheduled Areas Act

40. Which toxic substance is commonly identified as the primary cause of death in recent spurious liquor tragedies in India?

    1. A Formaldehyde
    2. B Isopropyl alcohol
    3. C Methanol
    4. D Ethanol

41. The 14-point checklist issued by the Uttar Pradesh Education Department primarily focuses on which of the following aspects of school management?

    1. A Curriculum development and digital literacy
    2. B Basic facilities like drinking water and electricity supply
    3. C Student-teacher ratios and classroom size
    4. D Teacher recruitment and salary structures

42. What is the primary objective of the bridge course model implemented at the Vision International Academy for madrasa students?

    1. A To provide vocational training exclusively for agricultural employment in rural areas.
    2. B To prepare students solely for theological research and higher religious studies.
    3. C To combine spiritual education with modern academic curriculum to facilitate mainstream career opportunities.
    4. D To replace religious education entirely with modern science and technology.

43. Which of the following is considered a recommended public health measure to mitigate the spread of seasonal influenza like H1N1?

    1. A Prohibition of all public movement during the winter season
    2. B Adherence to respiratory etiquette and hand hygiene
    3. C Complete isolation of all urban populations
    4. D Mandatory vaccination for all citizens regardless of age

44. Under which legislation are offences related to voluntarily causing hurt using dangerous weapons currently registered in India?

    1. A Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
    2. B Police Act, 1861
    3. C Indian Penal Code (IPC)
    4. D Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC)

45. Which city in India is home to a UNESCO World Heritage site comprising a significant collection of Art Deco buildings?

    1. A Chennai
    2. B Kolkata
    3. C Delhi
    4. D Mumbai

46. The China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) is a flagship project under which of the following international initiatives?

    1. A Global Gateway
    2. B International North-South Transport Corridor
    3. C Belt and Road Initiative
    4. D Blue Dot Network

47. Which of the following factors was cited by Tata Motors Passenger Vehicles Ltd. as the reason for the price hike effective from September 1?

    1. A Reduction in export demand for electric vehicles
    2. B Introduction of new safety features across all models
    3. C Government mandate on emission standards
    4. D Increase in input costs and inflationary pressures

48. Which of the following National Highways serves as a primary surface communication lifeline for the state of Manipur, as mentioned in recent reports regarding the resumption of inter-state bus services?

    1. A National Highway 1 and 2
    2. B National Highway 2 and 53
    3. C National Highway 2 and 37
    4. D National Highway 37 and 44

49. What was the reported pass percentage for the CBSE Class 12 examinations in 2026 as mentioned in the recent petition?

    1. A 82.01%
    2. B 87.5%
    3. C 88.39%
    4. D 85.2%

50. Which of the following best describes the role of the High Court in the context of the recent stay on recruitment cancellations in Jharkhand?

    1. A The Court has assumed the administrative responsibility of conducting the JSSC-CGL examinations.
    2. B The Court has intervened to maintain the status quo of existing appointments pending the final adjudication of the writ petition.
    3. C The Court has declared all recruitment processes since 2014 as unconstitutional.
    4. D The Court has permanently invalidated the state government's power to conduct recruitment examinations.

51. The National Teachers Awards are conferred by which of the following authorities?

    1. A Chairman of the University Grants Commission
    2. B President of India
    3. C Prime Minister of India
    4. D Union Minister of Education

52. What is the nature of the selection process for the National Teachers Awards?

    1. A Recommendation by State Governors only
    2. B A single-stage national level competition
    3. C Direct nomination by the Ministry of Education
    4. D A three-stage process at district, State, and national levels

53. Which of the following constitutional provisions explicitly prohibits 'begar' and other similar forms of forced labour in India?

    1. A Article 46
    2. B Article 23
    3. C Article 24
    4. D Article 21

54. Which of the following bodies is primarily responsible for the investigation of criminal cases involving members of Parliament and State Legislatures in the context of special courts?

    1. A National Investigation Agency
    2. B Central Bureau of Investigation
    3. C State Human Rights Commission
    4. D Special Investigation Team

55. Under which primary legislation does the Enforcement Directorate conduct investigations into money laundering activities?

    1. A Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA)
    2. B Central Vigilance Commission Act
    3. C Indian Penal Code (IPC)
    4. D Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA)

56. The Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA), which was in force during the 1975 Emergency, primarily provided for which of the following?

    1. A Regulation of interstate trade during crises
    2. B Compulsory military service for citizens
    3. C Detention of individuals without trial
    4. D Censorship of all private correspondence

57. Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to move freely throughout the territory of India?

    1. A Article 32
    2. B Article 21
    3. C Article 14
    4. D Article 19

58. Under the recent special provision announced by Delhi University for the 2026-27 academic session, what is the minimum CGPA required for SC/ST students to apply directly for a PhD programme after the Four-Year Undergraduate Programme (FYUP)?

    1. A 8.0
    2. B 7.0
    3. C 7.5
    4. D 6.5

59. In the context of urban safety and disaster management in India, which of the following is primarily responsible for granting permission for the demolition of a residential building?

    1. A The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
    2. B The State Police Department
    3. C The local Municipal Corporation or Urban Local Body
    4. D The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)

60. The Shri Ram Janmabhoomi Teerth Kshetra Trust was constituted following a verdict by which of the following institutions?

    1. A The Archaeological Survey of India
    2. B The Ministry of Culture
    3. C The Parliament of India
    4. D The Supreme Court of India